Tribunals and CommissionsSingle Bench(2026) 09 CAT CK 6854

Ashok Kumar Singh vs The Union Of India & Ors.

Central Administrative Tribunal · Decided on 25 September 2026

HON’BLE JUDGES
Kumar Rajesh Chandra, Member (A)
RESULT
Disposed Of
CASE NUMBER
O.A. No. 051/00981/2024

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Judgment

77 paragraphs · 4,185 words

PER:- MR. KUMAR RAJESH CHANDRA, MEMBER [A]

The applicant has approached this Tribunal under Section 19 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 praying for the following relief:

“a. For quashing of the order of punishment, passed in the departmental proceeding initiated against the applicant vide order contained in communication no. 11025/11/2023-SS-I (EPFO) dated 22.08.2024 (Annexure-18) issued under the pen and signature of the Secretary, Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India whereby and whereunder the penalty of ‘cut in the pension at the rate of 10% for a period of 3 years’ has been imposed upon the applicant under amended Rule 8 of the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021 which is not only highly disproportionate as against the charges levelled against the petitioner but has also been passed dehors the prescribed rules, norms and procedures prescribed for conducting department proceeding and without considering the detailed reply submitted by the applicant with respect to each and every charge levelled against him.

b. For quashing of the Enquiry Report dated 04.05.2023 (Annexure-15) to the extent that Article -IV has been said to be proved against the petitioner as the said Enquiry Report has been prepared without giving any due consideration to the reply submitted by the petitioner with respect to the said charge.

c. For commanding upon the respondents to pay the statutory interest on the amount of gratuity and Leave encashment of the applicant as the same has been paid to the applicant on 13.09.2024 after an inordinate delay of about 2 years and 8 months of his superannuation.

d. For commanding upon the respondents to immediately and forthwith release the entire arrears of the pension amount of the applicant along with statutory interest which has been deducted/ withheld due to the order of punishment dated 22.08.2024 (Annexure-18) as the applicant has been wrongfully inflicted with the punishment of deduction of 10% pension for a period of 3 years under amended Rule 8 of the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021.

And/ Or

e. During pendency of the instant application, the order of punishment dated 22.08.2024 passed in the departmental proceeding against the applicant may be stayed.

And/ or

f. The petitioner prays for any other relief/ reliefs or order/orders which your Lordships may pass in the interest of justice and also for doing conscionable justice to the applicant .”

2.

For the sake of clarity, facts in the case as stated by the applicant in his OA, are delineated and discussed herein under :-

The applicant initially joined the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) as a Messenger in 1980 and was subsequently appointed as Lower Division Clerk in 1982 and promoted as Upper Division Clerk in 1986 through Limited Departmental Examinations. Thereafter, having qualified in the examination conducted by the UPSC, he was appointed as Enforcement/Accounts Officer in 1995, with continuity of service from 1980. He was subsequently granted ad-hoc promotion as Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner (APFC) in 2011, which was confirmed in 2015.

The applicant was posted as APFC at Regional Office, Ranchi, from 10.03.2014 to 17.04.2017 and was thereafter transferred to Durgapur. In 2021, shortly before his superannuation, he was transferred to the Regional Office, Trichy, Tamil Nadu. While posted at Trichy, a charge memorandum dated 25.10.2021 was issued against him under Rule 10 of the EPF Staff (CCA) Rules, 1971, in respect of alleged irregularities concerning M/s Reliance Fire Bricks & Pottery Co. Ltd. (JH/232), relating to the period when he was posted at Ranchi between 10.03.2014 and 17.04.2017.

The charge memorandum contained four articles of charge. In substance, the allegations related to the applicant's role as a member of a committee constituted to examine alleged overpayment in the account of the establishment; failure to escalate the alleged misplacement of Form-24 and take steps for its retrieval or lodging of an FIR; approval of alleged erroneous compilation of annual accounts; and failure to personally examine the records in spite of directions of the superior authorities, allegedly by delegating the matter to subordinate officers.

The applicant submitted his detailed reply to the charge memorandum on 24.11.2021, denying the allegations and pointing out, inter alia, that certain documents supplied along with the charge memorandum were illegible. An Inquiry Officer and Presenting Officer were thereafter appointed on 24.12.2021. During the inquiry, the applicant pointed out discrepancies regarding the date of issuance of the charge memorandum and also complained about non-supply of legible copies of relevant documents. The Inquiry Officer, vide order dated 24.02.2022, sought clarification regarding the discrepancy and directed the Presenting Officer to locate the original documents and supply legible copies to the applicant. Subsequently, an order dated 02.03.2022 was issued purporting to rectify the discrepancy. Another Inquiry Officer was thereafter appointed on 31.03.2022.

The applicant superannuated on 01.02.2022 while the disciplinary proceedings were pending. Alleging delay in conclusion of the proceedings, he submitted a representation dated 02.06.2022 seeking expeditious completion thereof. Thereafter, he approached the Tribunal in O.A. No. 051/000098/2023. The said OA was disposed of on 15.02.2023 with a direction to the respondents to conclude the departmental proceedings within six months and with a further observation regarding release of admissible amounts towards leave encashment etc., if otherwise payable.

The departmental proceedings resumed on 21.03.2023. During the proceedings, the applicant again raised the issue of non-supply of certain prosecution documents and illegible copies of other documents and requested that the defence witnesses sought by him be summoned. The statements of prosecution witnesses were recorded on 03.04.2023. According to the applicant, one of the prosecution witnesses categorically stated that no irregularity had been committed by him in the preparation of the dummy accounts.

As the proceedings were not concluded within the time stipulated by the Tribunal, the applicant filed C.P. No. 39 of 2023. During the contempt proceedings, the respondents sought further time for conclusion of the disciplinary proceedings. The Inquiry Officer ultimately submitted his report on 04.05.2023, holding Articles I, II and III of the charge as not proved, while holding Article IV as proved.

Thereafter, the Secretary, Ministry of Labour and Employment, issued a disagreement note dated 14.11.2023, whereby the findings of the Inquiry Officer in respect of Articles I and III were disagreed with, while the findings concerning Articles II and IV were accepted. The applicant was supplied the inquiry report along with the disagreement note on 07.12.2023 and submitted his detailed reply on 19.12.2023.

Subsequently, the Secretary, Ministry of Labour and Employment passed the impugned punishment order dated 22.08.2024, whereby a penalty of 10% cut in pension for a period of three years was imposed upon the applicant. The applicant has challenged the said punishment order as well as the inquiry report, principally on the grounds of delay, violation of principles of natural justice, non-supply of relevant documents, denial of opportunity to produce defence witnesses, absence of sufficient evidence, non-speaking nature of the punishment order and disproportionality of punishment.

The applicant has also stated that his promotion to the post of Regional Provident Fund Commissioner-II was due on 30.03.2021 and his case had been kept under sealed cover even before issuance of the charge memorandum dated 25.10.2021. He has relied upon the applicable DoPT instructions and the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Union of India v. K.V. Jankiraman to contend that the sealed-cover procedure could not have been invoked in the manner adopted by the respondents. It is further stated that the applicant's gratuity and leave encashment were ultimately released only on 13.09.2024, nearly two years and eight months after his superannuation.

3.1

Learned Counsel for the applicant submits that the impugned punishment order is legally unsustainable and deserves to be quashed, principally because the disciplinary proceedings relate to an alleged irregularity concerning an establishment for the period 1998–2001, whereas the applicant was posted at Ranchi only from 10.03.2014 to 17.04.2017. It is contended that the applicant had no role whatsoever in the original transactions or overpayments which allegedly occurred several years before his posting at Ranchi.

3.2

It is further submitted by Learned Counsel for the applicant that there was an inordinate and unexplained delay of more than four years in initiating the disciplinary proceedings, and the charge memorandum was issued only about two and a half months before the applicant's superannuation. According to learned Counsel, such unexplained delay seriously prejudiced the applicant in defending himself, particularly when the allegations related to events and records which were more than a decade old.

3.3

Learned Counsel for the applicant further submits that the applicant had himself brought the alleged irregularities concerning the overpayment to the notice of the authorities through his communications dated 28.08.2014 and 26.10.2015. Therefore, according to him, the allegation that the applicant deliberately failed to detect or report the irregularity is contrary to the record.

3.4

It is next contended by Learned Counsel for the applicant that the applicant was denied a reasonable opportunity of defence. Several relevant documents were either not supplied or were supplied in illegible form, despite specific requests made by the applicant and directions issued during the inquiry for supply of legible copies. It is argued that without access to the relevant documents, the applicant could not effectively cross-examine the prosecution witnesses or establish his defence. Learned Counsel also submits that despite repeated requests, the defence witnesses whose evidence was stated to be material to the applicant's defence were not permitted to be examined, thereby violating the principles of natural justice.

3.5

Learned Counsel for the applicant further argues that the findings against the applicant are unsupported by cogent evidence. It is pointed out that the Inquiry Officer himself found Articles I, II and III not proved and only Article IV proved. According to learned Counsel, there was no reliable oral or documentary evidence establishing any misconduct on the part of the applicant, and the disciplinary authority could not substitute mere suspicion or inference for proof of the charge.

3.6

It is also submitted by Learned Counsel for the applicant that the disagreement note and the subsequent punishment order do not adequately deal with the detailed defence raised by the applicant. Learned Counsel contends that the impugned punishment order is essentially a non-speaking order and does not disclose proper reasons for rejecting the applicant's explanation or for imposing the particular penalty of 10% cut in pension for three years.

3.7

Lastly, learned Counsel for the applicant submits that the punishment imposed upon the applicant is grossly disproportionate, particularly considering his long and otherwise satisfactory service and the nature of the allegation. It is contended that similarly situated officers involved in the same matter were either given only a warning or subjected to a minor penalty, whereas the applicant has been visited with a substantial cut in pension after retirement. On these grounds, learned Counsel seeks quashing of the impugned punishment order and consequential reliefs.

4.

Per contra, Learned Counsel for the respondents submits that the applicant, having denied the charges, was rightly subjected to a departmental inquiry under Rule 10 of the EPF Staff (CCA) Rules, 1971. The discrepancy in the date of the charge memorandum mentioned in the appointment orders of the Inquiry Officer and Presenting Officer was merely a typographical error, which was subsequently rectified, and caused no prejudice to the applicant.

4.1

It is further submitted that the applicant was supplied the relevant documents and was also given an opportunity to inspect the original records and cross-examine the prosecution witnesses. His request for additional documents and defence witnesses was duly considered by the Inquiry Officer and declined as the same were found irrelevant to the charges. Thus, there was no violation of the principles of natural justice.

4.2

Learned Counsel submits that the statement of PW-2 relied upon by the applicant cannot be considered in isolation and that the findings against the applicant were based upon the overall documentary and oral evidence available on record. The Disciplinary Authority, after considering the Inquiry Report and the applicant's representation, issued a disagreement note and thereafter passed the impugned penalty order in accordance with the applicable rules.

4.3

It is submitted by Learned Counsel for the respondents that the charge was not with respect to the original overpayment of the period 1998–2001, but concerned the applicant's alleged dereliction of duty while posted as APFC at Ranchi during 2014–2017. The respondents also deny any deliberate delay or harassment and submit that the proceedings were conducted in accordance with the directions of the Tribunal.

4.4

Regarding the sealed-cover procedure, learned Counsel submits that vigilance clearance had not been furnished in respect of the applicant and the DPC had accordingly recommended keeping his case in sealed cover. The withholding of gratuity and leave encashment was also stated to be in accordance with the applicable rules since disciplinary proceedings were pending on the date of his superannuation.

4.5

Learned Counsel further submits that the roles of the other officers referred to by the applicant were different and, therefore, the allegation of discriminatory treatment is not sustainable. The penalty imposed was within the jurisdiction of the Disciplinary Authority and does not warrant interference in judicial review.

4.6

Lastly, learned Counsel for the respondents raises a preliminary objection that the applicant has not exhausted the available statutory remedy of appeal against the penalty order before approaching the Tribunal. On these grounds, learned Counsel submits that the OA is devoid of merit and liable to be dismissed.

5.

In response to the written statement filed by the respondents, the applicant filed his rejoinder and submitted that the respondents themselves admit that the relevant records were in a debilitated condition; therefore, mere permission to inspect such records did not provide an effective opportunity of defence. The applicant's request for examination of relevant defence witnesses was also rejected without cogent reasons, causing serious prejudice to his case.

It is further submitted that the statement of PW-2, who categorically stated that no irregularity was committed by the applicant in preparation of the dummy accounts, directly relates to Articles I to III of the charge memorandum. The respondents have failed to identify any specific evidence which could outweigh or contradict the said testimony.

On the sealed-cover issue, learned Counsel for the applicant submits that the DPC was held on 30.03.2021, whereas the charge memorandum was issued only on 25.10.2021. Therefore, reliance upon the pendency of vigilance proceedings prior to issuance of the charge-sheet could not justify resort to the sealed-cover procedure.

Regarding alternative remedy, learned Counsel submits that the same is not an absolute bar where the proceedings suffer from violation of principles of natural justice. On these grounds, learned Counsel prays for allowing the OA and granting the consequential reliefs.

6.

In reply to the rejoinder filed by the applicant, Learned Counsel for the respondents submits that the departmental proceedings were conducted in accordance with the applicable rules and the delay cannot be attributed to any mala fide intention on the part of the respondents. The Tribunal had itself granted time for conclusion of the proceedings, and the final penalty order was passed on 22.08.2024.

It is further submitted that the relevant DCBR records were old and in a debilitated condition; nevertheless, the applicant was afforded an opportunity to inspect the original records at Regional Office, Ranchi and the documents were subsequently supplied to him through e-mail. The applicant was also permitted to cross-examine the prosecution witnesses. His request for additional documents and witnesses was duly considered by the Inquiry Officer and declined on the ground of irrelevance to the charges. Hence, no prejudice or violation of natural justice was caused.

Learned Counsel submits that the applicant was aware of the short remittance and the earlier adjustment of contributions, yet approved the committee report dated 08.03.2017 containing observations which were allegedly inconsistent with his earlier noting dated 02.09.2014. According to the respondents, these documents constituted material evidence supporting the findings against the applicant.

With regard to the sealed-cover procedure, learned Counsel submits that the DPC recommended keeping the applicant's case in sealed cover as vigilance clearance had not been furnished. The Vigilance Division, vide communication dated 08.03.2021, had reported that major penalty proceedings were contemplated against the applicant and other complaints were under examination. Hence, the respondents contend that the sealed-cover decision was justified.

Learned Counsel further submits that the applicant's representations and defence were duly considered by the Disciplinary Authority. The charge memorandum related to alleged dereliction of duty during the applicant's posting at Ranchi from 2014 to 2017, and not merely to the original overpayment. The applicant's assertion that he had earlier pointed out the overpayment, therefore, does not absolve him of the specific lapses found against him.

It is submitted that the disagreement note dated 14.11.2023 was issued in accordance with Rule 11(2) of the EPF Staff (CCA) Rules, 1971, and the applicant's representation dated 19.12.2023 was duly considered before passing the final penalty order.

7.

Having considered the rival submissions and upon perusal of the pleadings, inquiry report, disagreement note and the impugned punishment order, this Tribunal has to examine the contention of the learned Counsel for the applicant that the impugned punishment order is a completely non-reasoned order and the applicant was not afforded an effective opportunity to defend himself. Whatever defence he submitted was also not at all considered by the Disciplinary Authority who passed the penalty order.

7.1

In order to examine this, it will be prudent to reproduce the whole penalty order ad verbatim to examine the allegation of the applicant that this is a non-reasoned order with no application of mind by the Disciplinary Authority.

I have carefully perused the impugned order that is being reproduced below to have a correct perspective.

“No.C-11025/11/2023-SS-I (EPFO)

Government of India

(Bharat Sarkar)

Ministry of Labour and Employment

(Shram Aur Rozgar Mantralaya)

Shram Shakti Bhawan,

Rafi Marg, New Delhi

Dated the 22nd August, 2024

ORDER

WHEREAS, Disciplinary proceedings under Rule 10 of the EPF Staff

(CCA) Rules, were initiated against Shri Ashok Kumar Singh, APFC

(Retd.) (hereinafter referred to as Charged Officer) on the four articles of charge communicated vide Charge Memorandum No. Vig.XIV(01)2016/e-file/1877 dated 25.10.2021.

AND WHEREAS, on denial of the charges by the officer, Shri Sanjay Kumar, ACC (BR & JH)/IO has submitted the Inquiry Report dated 04-05-2023 holding the Article of Charges as I, II & III as 'Not Proved' and Article of Charge-IV as 'Proved'. The then Secretary (L&E), being the Competent Authority, as per amended Rule 8 of CCS (Pension), 2021 has considered the Inquiry Report and documents on record and taken a tentative view to accept the findings of the IO with regard to Article II and IV and to disagree with the findings with regard to Article I and III.

AND WEHREAS, Accordingly, the then Competent Authority issued a disagreement note dated 14.11.2023 and further provided an opportunity to the CO to make representation on the tentative decision as per the disagreement note.

AND WHEREAS, the CO submitted the representation dated 19.12.2023 wherein the points raised by the CO were unsustainable objections, on the disagreement note dated 14.11.2023 and IO's findings dated 04-05-2023. The undersigned considered the representation as devoid of merit.

NOW, THEREFORE, after careful consideration of the Inquiry Report, and in light of the facts and circumstances of the case and evidence placed on record, the undersigned, in exercise of powers vested under amended Rule 8 of the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021 has decided to impose a penalty of "Cut in Pension at the rate of 10% for a period of 3 years" upon Shri Ashok Kumar Singh, APFC (Retd.) and orders accordingly. Sd/-(Sumita Dawra) Secretary to the Government of India To, Sh. Ashok Kumar Singh, APFC (Retd.). Coy to: CPFC, EPFO, New Delhi”

By no stretch of imagination this penalty order that has been filed along with the Original Application of the Applicant as ANNEXURE-18 could be termed as a reasoned order. All the sentences in this order are nothing but narration of sequence of procedure of framing the charge and conduct of proceedings. The only sentence reflecting the opinion of the Disciplinary Authority is confined to one line that is “The undersigned considered the representation as devoid of merit.” The defence submitted by the applicant against the disagreement note that is very exhaustive raising a large number of contentions for consideration and runs into thirty-six typed pages kept as Annexure-17 of the O.A. did not deserve to be discarded with such disdain in one line. It required proper consideration before a decision was ultimately taken in whatever manner the Disciplinary authority deemed fit. This is a classic example of violation of the principle of natural justice. No person should be condemned unheard.

7.2

It is an admitted position that the relevant records relied upon by the respondents were quite old and were admittedly in a debilitated condition. Though the applicant was permitted to inspect the original records, mere inspection of records which were admittedly in such condition cannot, in the facts of the present case, be treated as sufficient compliance with the requirement of furnishing legible and usable documents, particularly when the applicant had consistently raised such objection during the inquiry.

7.3

This Tribunal also finds that the applicant had sought examination of certain defence witnesses and production of additional documents in support of his defence. The said request was declined by the Inquiry Officer on the ground that the documents and witnesses were not relevant. However, considering the nature of the charges, particularly Articles I to III relating to the preparation/compilation of the alleged dummy accounts and the applicant's role therein, the request could not have been rejected in a mechanical manner. The applicant was entitled to an effective opportunity to establish his defence and to demonstrate the relevance of the proposed evidence.

7.4

It is further significant that the Inquiry Officer had held Articles I, II and III of the charge memorandum as not proved. The Disciplinary Authority thereafter disagreed with the findings of the Inquiry Officer in respect of Articles I and III. Such disagreement necessarily required proper consideration of the defence raised by the applicant and the material available on record. The applicant had submitted a detailed representation against the disagreement note; however, the impugned punishment order does not deal at all with the material contentions raised therein.

7.5

This Tribunal further finds that the impugned order does not disclose adequate reasons for arriving at the conclusion that the applicant's explanation was unacceptable or for imposing the particular punishment of 10% cut in pension for three years. In particular, the order does not also adequately demonstrate the basis for the quantum of punishment, including the extent of the alleged loss or financial consequence attributable to the applicant's conduct. A reasoned order was required, particularly when the applicant had specifically disputed his responsibility and relied upon the evidence recorded during the inquiry.

7.6

The fact that the applicant had himself brought the issue of overpayment to the notice of the authorities through his earlier communications was also a material circumstance which required due consideration while examining his defence. Further, the statement of PW-2 relied upon by the applicant, wherein the witness stated that no irregularity had been committed by the applicant in preparation of the dummy accounts, could not have been brushed aside merely by observing that it was inconsistent with the other evidence, without indicating the specific evidence which outweighed such testimony.

7.7

In the totality of the circumstances, I am of the considered view that the disciplinary process culminating in the impugned punishment order has not afforded the applicant a fair and effective opportunity of defence, and the impugned punishment order also suffers from want of adequate reasons. The defects noticed above go to the root of the decision-making process and have caused prejudice to the applicant. This can be amply demonstrated by the perusal of the penalty order that contains only one line of the opinion of the Disciplinary authority that reads as follows: “The undersigned considered the representation as devoid of merit.” Accordingly, the impugned punishment order dated 22.08.2024 cannot be sustained.

7.8

In view of the foregoing discussion, the Original Application is allowed in following terms :-

(i)

The impugned punishment order dated 22.08.2024, whereby a penalty of 10% cut in pension for a period of three years was imposed upon the applicant, is hereby quashed and set aside.

(ii)

Consequently, the respondents shall restore the applicant's pension without giving effect to the aforesaid penalty and release the consequential arrears, if any, in accordance with law.

(iii)

The respondents shall also reconsider the applicant's claim for interest on delayed payment of gratuity in accordance with the applicable rules and pass an appropriate reasoned and speaking order within a period of three months from the date of receipt of a copy of this order. So far as interest on delayed payment of leave encashment is concerned the respondents will decide as per the applicable leave rules in this regard.

(iv)

The consequential monetary benefits arising out of setting aside of the impugned penalty shall be released to the applicant within the aforesaid period.

8.

With the above directions, OA stands disposed of. There shall be no order as to costs.